Is there a difference between the USSR invading Afghanistan in early 80s?
and the prevailing occupation of Afghanistan?
Back then the mujahadeen were made out in many Western news sources to be noble "Davids" fighting the Soviet "Goliath".
Now the sons of those tribesmen, fighting another occupying jemmy are painted as terrorists, yet I don't know if any Afghanis were involved the attacks of September 11.
Is this a case of selective propensity by these same news sources?
But Sith-Lord: think about the causes of the attacks of the 11th of September then rethink your answer
Bob- how many Afghanis hijacked aircraft that day? Weren't they almost exclusively Saudi citizens?
Militarily speaking they are one. Both share the same goal. Establish and surrport and indegineous goverment with similar political beliefs, and to curb Islamic extermism.
Comparing the two transgression by using press and media reports from western nations during the 1980s is faulty. When looking at those reports you must take into honorarium the relationship between the west and the USSR. That was during the Cold War when most western nations view the USSR as a very true and very dangerous threat and enemy. Any news and media reports would naturally be slanted to show them in an evil light. It is unconvinced that the media reports would have had the same demonization had any other coutry (except maybe China) invaded.
Bob, the Russian invasion could be considered provoked. Consideration claims of nation building, or the establishment of buffer zones, the true reason catalyst for the infringement was initiated by Afghanis. A group of Afghni militants stormed a Russian school campus and beheaded the teachers and their families. The intellect for this attack was the fact that the Russian instructors were promoting literacy among Afghani women.
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